Why do most academics prefer the term post-structuralism over post-modernism, despite the two often being used interchangeably?

Explanation

Option A is correct because the term post-structuralism highlights that the approach is not restricted to a distinct post-modern timeframe and shares more common ground with its critics, as explained by Waever. Option B is incorrect since post-modernism implies opposition to modernity, whereas post-structuralism addresses modern phenomena. Option C is irrelevant as the length of the term has no bearing. Option D is not the main reason for the preference in terminology.