According to Lacan's essay "Desire and the Interpretation of Desire in 'Hamlet'", which statement most accurately reflects his interpretation of Hamlet's desire for Ophelia?
Explanation
Lacan interprets Hamlet's desire as being directed toward Ophelia only when she is inaccessible, highlighting the role of unattainability in desire. He contrasts this with Hamlet's complex relationship with his mother and his quest for revenge, which do not directly involve Ophelia.